SO in its wisdom the government has decided to issue pardons to thousands of gay men convicted of sexual offences prior to the Sexual Offences Act of 1967.

Whilst few people would argue that this Act was many many years overdue, how is it possible to pardon people guilty of an offence that was unequivocally criminal at the time it was committed? Those many thousands of men who risked prosecution knew full well that what they were doing was a criminal offence and that they were in danger of imprisonment or much worse if caught. Furthermore, how far back is the government prepared to go? Maybe Oscar Wilde will be able to sleep more soundly in his grave.

As civilisation has matured many archaic laws of past ages have been repealed but to have pardoned offenders of those laws through history would have been ludicrous. Does it also mean that say in ten year's time the possession of 'A' Class drugs were to be decriminalised then the millions of people convicted of possession under the present laws would then be granted a pardon?

Perhaps the most alarming element of today's news is the comment of Paul Twocock of Stonewall in the Daily Mail who stated "We welcome the Government announcement but we don't think it goes far enough. It explicitly excludes pardoning anyone convicted of offences that would still be illegal today, including non-consensual sex and sex with someone under 16".

Mr Twocock should bear in mind that the raping of under age boys is most definitely a criminal offence today, and hopefully it will remain so for many generations to come.

Tony Hutchinson

Smithills